I'm in a dry patch, composing-wise, so just to keep my hand in I'm transcribing the overture to Mozart's Magic Flute into Noteworthy, and I have a question about tutti vs divisi. Take for example, the flute staff which has single notes and two-note chords, which are obviously divided among the players, and in some places notes are held for a longer duration while other shorter notes play, and those are clearly to be divided among the flutes. But in some cases there is only a single note on the staff. Some are clearly marked with stems going both up and down and are obviously meant to be played in unison by all (or both), but others do not have stems going both ways. Am I to assume that single-stem notes are taken only by the principal flute? Or are they conventionally played by both flutes as well?
There is one place in the flutes where two whole notes sit side by side in the same measure, and I assume that also means both flutes in unison. Is that correct?
Thanks for any insight.